The New Testament writers in a few verses when quoting the OT where The Name (the name of YHWH/Yahweh in the Hebrew OT, but typically "the LORD" in the Greek manuscripts of the OT) appears were equating Jesus with "the LORD" (Yahweh). See Romans 10:9 -13 in the NWT (1984) and then read the interlinear literal translation of the Greek text in the WT's Kingdom Interlinear. Look at the cross references (in the 1984 NWT) for verse 13 to Joel 2:32 and Zephaniah 3:9. Those OT verses are where The Name YHWH/Yahweh/Jehovah is used in the Hebrew Scriptures ("the LORD" in at least most copies of the Greek translation of those scriptures). Look at Acts 2:21 (NWT 1984) where it says "And everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved." Then look at the Kingdom Interlinear's literal interlinear translation and notice it says "the name of Lord" instead of Jehovah in that verse.
See also the website of https://www.tetragrammaton.org/ . Its author claims to have attended meetings at a Kingdom Hall of JWs on a weekly basis and that he has never been a JW (and thus never an apostate of the WT/JW religion). He is an evangelical Christian who has carefully examined the J (Jehovah) references in the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.
There is evidence
that the earliest Christians originally thought of the heavenly Christ
as originally an emanation of Yahweh (or as part of Yahweh) and thus
they thought he could be called Yahweh and "the LORD" and thus also be
worshiped and be considered God and be prayed to (see John 1:1, John
20:28, Acts 7:59,60 [note footnote in 1984 NWT regarding alternate
reading for "made appeal" and see the Kingdom Interlinear's literal
translation of Acts 7:59, 60]). See Colossians 1:17 in the KIT and note
that the Greek text for that verse has no Greek word meaning "other".
Note that NWT Bible editions printed from 2006 and later exclude the
brackets around the word "other" and thus obscure the fact that the word
"other" in the translation of that verse does not complete the sense of
that verse, but rather alters its meaning.
See also Hebrews 1:1 - 14 and note that Jesus is being contrasted
with the angels and thus being considered as not an angel and thus not
the Archangel Michael. Notice that verse 6 (in the 1984 NWT) says "...
let all God's angels do obeisance to him." Note that the footnote for
that verse in the 1984 NWT Reference Bible says 'Or, "let ... worship."
'. Compare the wording of the verse to the 1970 and earlier editions of
the NWT; they say in the main text for Hebrews 1:6 the following '...
And let all God's angels worship him." ' [See also the ASV and KJV
Bibles for that verse.] In contrast the latest revision of the NWT (the
2013 Revision) in Hebrews 1:6 in the footnote for "do obeisance" doesn't
give the alternate rendering of "worship .." but says "bow down"
instead. [See https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/hebrews/1/#fn161259120 .] Step by step
the WT in the translation of their NWT has diminished the significance
of sayings in the Bible which ascribe worship to Jesus Christ.
Let me make clear, I don't believe/think that Jesus is the God or a god - I'm now an atheist and a philosophical naturalist - but I now think that parts of Bible do teach that Jesus is God (in some sense - in a much greater sense than the WT interpretation of "and the Word was a god") and that the earliest Christians thought of Jesus as God (in some sense - in a much greater sense than the WT interpretation of "and the Word was a god"). See the book by Earl Doherty called The Jesus Puzzle: Did Christianity Begin with a Mythical Christ? Challenging the Existence of an Historical Jesus. See also Doherty's website at https://www.jesuspuzzle.com/jesuspuzzle/index.htm .
The earliest extant New Testament manuscripts didn't write out the name Jesus but used nomina sacra instead. Regarding nomina sacra see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nomina_sacra .